Indian Constitution & Polity MCQs for UPSC/SSC/Bank – High Accuracy Set
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Boost your exam preparation with our expertly curated Indian Constitution & Polity MCQs – tailored for UPSC, SSC, and Banking exams. This High Accuracy Set is designed to match the latest exam trends and difficulty levels, helping you master important topics like Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, Parliament, Judiciary, and Constitutional Amendments. Whether you're aiming for IAS, CGL, or IBPS, these multiple choice questions will enhance your conceptual clarity and speed. Perfect for practice, revision, and mock tests.
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✅ Indian Constitution & Polity MCQs for UPSC/SSC/Bank – High Accuracy Set
Prepare for your upcoming competitive exams with this High Accuracy Set of Indian Constitution and Polity MCQs. Designed for UPSC Prelims, SSC CGL, Banking Exams, and other government tests, these objective questions on Indian Polity help build strong conceptual clarity.
📘 Set: Indian Polity Objective Questions with Answers
1. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
A) Part II
B) Part III
C) Part IV
D) Part V
Answer: B) Part III
Explanation: Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12 to 35) guarantees Fundamental Rights to Indian citizens.
2. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was appointed as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee in 1947.
3. The concept of “Directive Principles of State Policy” was borrowed from which country?
A) USA
B) UK
C) Ireland
D) Germany
Answer: C) Ireland
Explanation: The DPSPs in Part IV are inspired by the Irish Constitution.
4. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the impeachment of the President?
A) Article 52
B) Article 61
C) Article 74
D) Article 356
Answer: B) Article 61
Explanation: Article 61 deals with the procedure for the impeachment of the President.
5. What is the minimum age to become the Prime Minister of India?
A) 25 years
B) 30 years
C) 35 years
D) 18 years
Answer: A) 25 years
Explanation: A person must be a member of the Lok Sabha (minimum age 25) to become Prime Minister.
6. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the anti-defection law?
A) 7th Schedule
B) 8th Schedule
C) 9th Schedule
D) 10th Schedule
Answer: D) 10th Schedule
Explanation: The 10th Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
7. What type of government has been adopted in India?
A) Presidential
B) Federal
C) Parliamentary
D) Unitary
Answer: C) Parliamentary
Explanation: India follows a Parliamentary form of government based on the Westminster model.
8. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the amendment procedure?
A) Article 356
B) Article 370
C) Article 368
D) Article 123
Answer: C) Article 368
Explanation: Article 368 provides the procedure to amend the Constitution.
9. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: B) President of India
Explanation: The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner under Article 324.
10. In which year was the Panchayati Raj system constitutionalized?
A) 1959
B) 1976
C) 1989
D) 1992
Answer: D) 1992
Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
✅ Indian Constitution & Polity MCQs – Continued (Set 2)
11. Which body is known as the 'guardian of the Constitution' in India?
A) President of India
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) Election Commission
Answer: C) Supreme Court
Explanation: The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review and ensures the supremacy of the Constitution.
12. How many Fundamental Duties are enshrined in the Constitution of India?
A) 10
B) 11
C) 9
D) 12
Answer: B) 11
Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002 added the 11th Fundamental Duty under Article 51A.
13. The term ‘Secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Constitution by which amendment?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 52nd Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Answer: A) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, added the words “Socialist”, “Secular”, and “Integrity” to the Preamble.
14. Which Article deals with the protection of the rights of minorities?
A) Article 14
B) Article 21
C) Article 29 and 30
D) Article 19
Answer: C) Article 29 and 30
Explanation: These articles provide for the cultural and educational rights of minorities.
15. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not?
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
D) Finance Minister
Answer: C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation: According to Article 110, the Speaker's decision is final on the classification of a Money Bill.
16. Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?
A) Federalism
B) Parliamentary System
C) Independence of Judiciary
D) Rigid Constitution
Answer: D) Rigid Constitution
Explanation: The Indian Constitution is both rigid and flexible, unlike purely rigid ones like the US Constitution.
17. The “Right to Education” is a Fundamental Right under which Article?
A) Article 14
B) Article 21
C) Article 21A
D) Article 45
Answer: C) Article 21A
Explanation: Article 21A was added by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002, making education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6–14 years.
18. Who presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament?
A) President of India
B) Vice-President
C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation: As per Article 108, the Speaker presides over the joint session of Parliament.
19. The Vice President of India is elected by:
A) Lok Sabha members
B) Rajya Sabha members
C) Members of both Houses of Parliament
D) Members of Legislative Assemblies
Answer: C) Members of both Houses of Parliament
Explanation: The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of all MPs from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
20. What is the maximum gap allowed between two sessions of Parliament?
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 1 year
Answer: B) 6 months
Explanation: According to Article 85, the gap between two sessions cannot exceed six months.
✅ Indian Constitution & Polity MCQs – Continued (Set 3)
21. Which Article of the Constitution allows the President to declare a National Emergency?
A) Article 352
B) Article 356
C) Article 360
D) Article 365
Answer: A) Article 352
Explanation: Article 352 empowers the President to declare a National Emergency in case of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
22. President’s Rule in a state can be imposed under which Article?
A) Article 360
B) Article 352
C) Article 365
D) Article 356
Answer: D) Article 356
Explanation: If the constitutional machinery fails in a state, Article 356 allows the imposition of President’s Rule.
23. The Financial Emergency provision is found under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A) Article 360
B) Article 356
C) Article 362
D) Article 366
Answer: A) Article 360
Explanation: Article 360 deals with Financial Emergency, which has never been invoked in India to date.
24. Which body recommends the distribution of tax revenues between Centre and States?
A) NITI Aayog
B) Planning Commission
C) Finance Commission
D) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: C) Finance Commission
Explanation: Under Article 280, the Finance Commission advises on the distribution of revenues between the Centre and the States.
25. Which schedule of the Constitution divides powers between Centre and States?
A) Third Schedule
B) Fifth Schedule
C) Seventh Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule
Answer: C) Seventh Schedule
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule contains the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists defining legislative powers.
26. Who appoints the Governor of a state in India?
A) Prime Minister
B) Chief Minister of the State
C) President of India
D) Home Minister
Answer: C) President of India
Explanation: As per Article 155, the Governor is appointed by the President and holds office at their pleasure.
27. Which of the following is NOT a Constitutional Body?
A) Election Commission of India
B) Finance Commission
C) NITI Aayog
D) Union Public Service Commission
Answer: C) NITI Aayog
Explanation: NITI Aayog is an executive body; it replaced the Planning Commission but is not backed by the Constitution.
28. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner?
A) 3 years
B) 5 years or until age 65, whichever is earlier
C) 6 years or until age 65, whichever is earlier
D) 6 years fixed
Answer: C) 6 years or until age 65, whichever is earlier
Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for 6 years or until the age of 65.
29. Which Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 61st Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Answer: C) 61st Amendment
Explanation: In 1988, the 61st Amendment reduced the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies to 18 years.
30. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the establishment of the Election Commission?
A) Article 320
B) Article 321
C) Article 324
D) Article 326
Answer: C) Article 324
Explanation: Article 324 vests the Election Commission with the responsibility of conducting free and fair elections.
✅ Indian Constitution & Polity MCQs – Continued (Set 4)
31. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act deals with:
A) Creation of High Courts
B) Anti-defection law
C) Panchayati Raj system
D) Urban Local Bodies
Answer: C) Panchayati Raj system
Explanation: The 73rd Amendment (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayats, adding Part IX and the 11th Schedule.
32. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act is related to:
A) Zila Parishad
B) Urban Local Bodies
C) Gram Sabha
D) Cooperative Societies
Answer: B) Urban Local Bodies
Explanation: The 74th Amendment (1992) provided for municipalities and added Part IXA and the 12th Schedule.
33. Who is known as the head of a Gram Panchayat?
A) Ward Member
B) Gram Sevak
C) Sarpanch
D) Pradhan
Answer: C) Sarpanch
Explanation: The elected head of a Gram Panchayat is called the Sarpanch.
34. Which of the following is the highest judicial authority in India?
A) Chief Justice of a High Court
B) Attorney General of India
C) Supreme Court
D) Law Commission
Answer: C) Supreme Court
Explanation: The Supreme Court is the highest judicial authority under Article 124.
35. The judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of:
A) 58 years
B) 60 years
C) 62 years
D) 65 years
Answer: D) 65 years
Explanation: As per Article 124(2), the retirement age of Supreme Court judges is 65 years.
36. What is the minimum number of judges required to hear a constitutional bench case in the Supreme Court?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
Answer: B) 5
Explanation: A Constitutional Bench must have at least 5 judges as per Article 145(3).
37. Which Amendment Act is called the "Mini Constitution"?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 52nd Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Answer: A) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, brought major changes to the Constitution and is often called the "Mini Constitution".
38. Which Amendment removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?
A) 40th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 52nd Amendment
Answer: C) 44th Amendment
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, removed the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right, making it a legal right under Article 300A.
39. The Judiciary in India is:
A) Executive controlled
B) Legislature controlled
C) Independent
D) Under the President’s authority
Answer: C) Independent
Explanation: The Indian judiciary is independent and free from executive or legislative control, as guaranteed by the Constitution.
40. Who has the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court?
A) President of India
B) Parliament
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Law Ministry
Answer: B) Parliament
Explanation: Under Article 124, the Parliament has the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court by law.
✅ Indian Constitution & Polity MCQs – Continued (Set 5)
41. How many Schedules are there in the Indian Constitution (as of now)?
A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 14
Answer: C) 12
Explanation: Originally, the Constitution had 8 Schedules; now it has 12, with the last (12th Schedule) added by the 74th Amendment in 1992.
42. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages?
A) 6th Schedule
B) 8th Schedule
C) 10th Schedule
D) 12th Schedule
Answer: B) 8th Schedule
Explanation: The 8th Schedule lists 22 official languages recognized by the Constitution.
43. Which Schedule contains provisions related to the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram?
A) 5th Schedule
B) 6th Schedule
C) 7th Schedule
D) 11th Schedule
Answer: B) 6th Schedule
Explanation: The 6th Schedule provides for autonomous district councils in certain tribal areas of the Northeast.
44. The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is found in:
A) Part II
B) Part III
C) Part IV
D) Part IVA
Answer: C) Part IV
Explanation: DPSPs are enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36 to 51), inspired by the Irish Constitution.
45. The Directive Principles aim to establish:
A) Political democracy
B) Economic and social democracy
C) Judicial independence
D) Emergency provisions
Answer: B) Economic and social democracy
Explanation: DPSPs aim to create a welfare state with socio-economic justice.
46. The idea of a Constitutionally mandated village panchayat was first suggested by:
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) B.R. Ambedkar
D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer: A) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: Gandhiji strongly advocated for Gram Swaraj and local self-governance.
47. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the Directive Principles?
A) Free legal aid
B) Equal pay for equal work
C) Right to education
D) Uniform civil code
Answer: C) Right to education
Explanation: The Right to Education is now a Fundamental Right under Article 21A, not part of the DPSPs.
48. What is the status of DPSPs in Indian law?
A) Enforceable by courts
B) Can override Fundamental Rights
C) Not enforceable but fundamental in governance
D) Equal to Fundamental Rights
Answer: C) Not enforceable but fundamental in governance
Explanation: As per Article 37, DPSPs are non-justiciable but guide state policy.
49. The First Schedule of the Constitution contains:
A) Names of states and union territories
B) Distribution of powers
C) Oaths and affirmations
D) Panchayati Raj institutions
Answer: A) Names of states and union territories
Explanation: The First Schedule lists the Indian states and union territories.
50. The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related to:
A) Languages
B) Union Territories
C) Anti-Defection
D) Emergency Powers
Answer: C) Anti-Defection
Explanation: The 10th Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment in 1985, contains the Anti-Defection Law.
✅ Indian Constitution & Polity MCQs – Continued (Set 6 – Mixed Revision)
51. Which Article of the Indian Constitution defines the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution?
A) Article 356
B) Article 368
C) Article 370
D) Article 324
Answer: B) Article 368
Explanation: Article 368 provides the procedure for both simple and special constitutional amendments.
52. What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha as per the Constitution?
A) 500
B) 525
C) 545
D) 552
Answer: D) 552
Explanation: Article 81 provides for a maximum strength of 552 members in the Lok Sabha.
53. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the Right to Equality?
A) Article 14 to 18
B) Article 19 to 22
C) Article 21A
D) Article 32
Answer: A) Article 14 to 18
Explanation: These articles form the foundation of the Right to Equality under Part III.
54. The idea of Single Citizenship in India has been adopted from:
A) USA
B) UK
C) Canada
D) Australia
Answer: B) UK
Explanation: India provides for single citizenship, inspired by the British model.
55. Who has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha before its term ends?
A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
B) President of India
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Prime Minister
Answer: B) President of India
Explanation: The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
56. The President of India can issue ordinances under:
A) Article 370
B) Article 356
C) Article 123
D) Article 74
Answer: C) Article 123
Explanation: Article 123 allows the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session.
57. Which of the following writs is issued to prevent unlawful detention?
A) Mandamus
B) Certiorari
C) Prohibition
D) Habeas Corpus
Answer: D) Habeas Corpus
Explanation: "Habeas Corpus" literally means "to have the body" and is used to protect personal liberty.
58. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs?
A) Article 32
B) Article 226
C) Article 142
D) Article 136
Answer: A) Article 32
Explanation: Article 32 is called the "heart and soul of the Constitution" and gives citizens the right to constitutional remedies.
59. The term ‘Secular’ in the Preamble implies:
A) No religion shall be recognized as state religion
B) Only majority religion will be protected
C) Uniform religion for all citizens
D) Religion-based laws for minorities
Answer: A) No religion shall be recognized as state religion
Explanation: India is secular; the state maintains equal distance from all religions.
60. How many types of emergencies are mentioned in the Constitution of India?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: B) 3
Explanation: India recognizes three types of emergencies: National (Article 352), President’s Rule (Article 356), and Financial (Article 360).
✅ Indian Constitution & Polity MCQs – Continued (Set 7 – Union & State Executive)
61. Who is the real executive authority in the Indian parliamentary system?
A) President
B) Vice-President
C) Prime Minister
D) Chief Justice
Answer: C) Prime Minister
Explanation: While the President is the nominal head, real executive power lies with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
62. The President of India is elected by:
A) People directly
B) Members of Lok Sabha only
C) Members of Rajya Sabha only
D) Electoral College (MPs + MLAs)
Answer: D) Electoral College (MPs + MLAs)
Explanation: The President is elected by an electoral college comprising elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected MLAs of states and UTs with legislatures.
63. The minimum age for contesting Presidential elections in India is:
A) 25 years
B) 30 years
C) 35 years
D) 40 years
Answer: C) 35 years
Explanation: As per Article 58, a person must be at least 35 years old to become the President.
64. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?
A) Chief Justice of India
B) Vice President
C) Prime Minister
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: A) Chief Justice of India
Explanation: The oath is administered by the Chief Justice or, in their absence, the seniormost judge of the Supreme Court.
65. The President can send back advice given by the Council of Ministers:
A) Once
B) Twice
C) Any number of times
D) Cannot send back advice
Answer: A) Once
Explanation: As per the 44th Amendment, the President can return advice once for reconsideration, but must accept it if re-sent.
66. Who acts as President when both the President and Vice President are unavailable?
A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
B) Attorney General
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Home Minister
Answer: C) Chief Justice of India
Explanation: If both the President and Vice President are unavailable, the CJI discharges presidential functions.
67. The Governor of a state is appointed by:
A) Chief Minister
B) Prime Minister
C) President of India
D) State Legislature
Answer: C) President of India
Explanation: Under Article 155, the Governor is appointed by the President and holds office at their pleasure.
68. What is the term of the Governor’s office?
A) 3 years
B) 4 years
C) 5 years
D) 6 years
Answer: C) 5 years
Explanation: Though the term is 5 years, the Governor holds office at the pleasure of the President and can be removed earlier.
69. Can the Governor of one state be appointed to another state simultaneously?
A) No
B) Yes, but only for Union Territories
C) Yes
D) Only during Emergency
Answer: C) Yes
Explanation: As per Article 153, the same person can be appointed as Governor of two or more states.
70. Who appoints the Chief Minister of a state?
A) President of India
B) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
C) Chief Justice of High Court
D) Governor
Answer: D) Governor
Explanation: The Governor appoints the leader of the majority party in the state assembly as the Chief Minister.
✅ Indian Constitution & Polity MCQs – Continued (Set 8 – Parliamentary Procedures & Bills)
71. A bill becomes an Act only after:
A) Introduction in Lok Sabha
B) Debate in Rajya Sabha
C) Presidential assent
D) Approval by Speaker
Answer: C) Presidential assent
Explanation: As per Article 111, a bill becomes an Act only after receiving the President’s assent.
72. A Money Bill can be introduced in:
A) Either House
B) Rajya Sabha only
C) Lok Sabha only
D) Joint Sitting
Answer: C) Lok Sabha only
Explanation: Article 110 states that a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, on the recommendation of the President.
73. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not?
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Answer: C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation: The Speaker’s decision on a Money Bill is final as per Article 110.
74. The Joint Sitting of Parliament is chaired by:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Vice-President
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation: In case of a deadlock between the two Houses, a joint sitting is presided over by the Speaker under Article 108.
75. Which of the following cannot be discussed in a state legislature?
A) State Budget
B) National Defence
C) Education Policy
D) Police Administration
Answer: B) National Defence
Explanation: National defence is a Union subject, outside the legislative scope of state legislatures.
76. The Quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is:
A) 1/2 of the total members
B) 1/4 of the total members
C) 1/10 of the total members
D) 1/3 of the total members
Answer: C) 1/10 of the total members
Explanation: As per Article 100(3), the quorum for Parliament is 1/10th of the total strength.
77. The Estimates Committee of Parliament is associated with:
A) Reviewing money bills
B) Examining budget estimates
C) Conducting elections
D) Reviewing President’s rule
Answer: B) Examining budget estimates
Explanation: The Estimates Committee analyzes how funds are allocated and suggests efficiency improvements.
78. Which committee is called the “Watchdog of the Public Purse”?
A) Public Accounts Committee (PAC)
B) Estimates Committee
C) Committee on Public Undertakings
D) Business Advisory Committee
Answer: A) Public Accounts Committee (PAC)
Explanation: PAC examines government expenditures and ensures accountability.
79. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of:
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Public Accounts Committee
D) Finance Commission
Answer: B) Rajya Sabha
Explanation: As per Article 64, the Vice-President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
80. Which of the following is a Parliamentary Standing Committee?
A) Ethics Committee
B) Joint Committee on Food Security
C) Committee on the Welfare of SCs & STs
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: All are examples of standing committees formed for oversight and scrutiny functions.
✅ Indian Constitution & Polity MCQs – Continued (Set 9 – Citizenship, Elections & Amendments)
81. Indian Citizenship is governed by which Act?
A) Citizenship Act, 1947
B) Citizenship Act, 1955
C) Immigration Act, 1951
D) Nationality Act, 1950
Answer: B) Citizenship Act, 1955
Explanation: The Citizenship Act, 1955, provides for acquisition, termination, and deprivation of Indian citizenship.
82. How many methods of acquiring Indian citizenship are provided under the Citizenship Act, 1955?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer: C) 5
Explanation: Citizenship can be acquired by birth, descent, registration, naturalization, and incorporation of territory.
83. Who is the first citizen of India?
A) Prime Minister
B) Chief Justice
C) President
D) Vice President
Answer: C) President
Explanation: As the constitutional head of the Republic, the President is considered the first citizen of India.
84. Voting rights in India are based on:
A) Property
B) Caste
C) Religion
D) Universal Adult Suffrage
Answer: D) Universal Adult Suffrage
Explanation: Every Indian citizen aged 18 or above can vote, regardless of caste, creed, religion, or wealth.
85. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by:
A) Parliament
B) Prime Minister
C) President of India
D) Law Ministry
Answer: C) President of India
Explanation: Under Article 324, the President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners.
86. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
A) 3 years or age 62
B) 6 years or age 65
C) 5 years or age 65
D) 6 years or age 60
Answer: B) 6 years or age 65 (whichever is earlier)
Explanation: Tenure is governed by The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Conditions of Service) Act.
87. Which Constitutional Amendment Act made Right to Education a Fundamental Right?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 86th Amendment
D) 93rd Amendment
Answer: C) 86th Amendment
Explanation: The 86th Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A to make free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right.
88. Which Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18?
A) 44th Amendment
B) 61st Amendment
C) 52nd Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Answer: B) 61st Amendment
Explanation: Passed in 1988, it amended Article 326, granting voting rights to citizens aged 18 and above.
89. Which Article deals with the Election Commission of India?
A) Article 320
B) Article 324
C) Article 326
D) Article 330
Answer: B) Article 324
Explanation: Article 324 establishes the Election Commission and vests in it the power of conducting elections.
90. Who can remove the Chief Election Commissioner from office?
A) Prime Minister
B) Law Minister
C) President (based on Parliament’s resolution)
D) Supreme Court
Answer: C) President (based on Parliament’s resolution)
Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner enjoys the same security of tenure as a Supreme Court judge and can only be removed through a process of impeachment by Parliament.
✅ Indian Constitution & Polity MCQs – Continued (Set 10 – Judiciary & Special Provisions)
91. The Supreme Court of India was established under which Article?
A) Article 124
B) Article 129
C) Article 131
D) Article 136
Answer: A) Article 124
Explanation: Article 124 establishes the Supreme Court of India and provides for appointment of judges.
92. The power of judicial review in India is derived from:
A) Articles 32 and 226
B) Article 370 only
C) Article 356
D) Directive Principles
Answer: A) Articles 32 and 226
Explanation: Judicial review is enforced through the writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court (Art. 32) and High Courts (Art. 226).
93. Which writ cannot be issued by the Supreme Court?
A) Habeas Corpus
B) Mandamus
C) Prohibition
D) Writ of Dissolution
Answer: D) Writ of Dissolution
Explanation: There is no such writ called “Writ of Dissolution” under the Indian Constitution.
94. The High Courts in India are established under:
A) Article 214
B) Article 215
C) Article 216
D) Article 218
Answer: A) Article 214
Explanation: Article 214 declares that there shall be a High Court for each state.
95. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by:
A) Governor of the state
B) President of India
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Prime Minister
Answer: B) President of India
Explanation: The President appoints the Chief Justice of High Courts after consulting the Chief Justice of India and Governor.
96. The Supreme Court's power to transfer cases from one High Court to another is under:
A) Article 136
B) Article 139A
C) Article 142
D) Article 144
Answer: B) Article 139A
Explanation: Article 139A empowers the Supreme Court to transfer cases or appeals between High Courts.
97. The Doctrine of Basic Structure was propounded in which case?
A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Answer: A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: The landmark 1973 judgment established that Parliament cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution.
98. Which Article provides for special provisions for Scheduled Tribes?
A) Article 15(4)
B) Article 17
C) Article 330
D) Article 338
Answer: A) Article 15(4)
Explanation: Article 15(4) enables the state to make special provisions for the advancement of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
99. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is constituted under:
A) Article 338
B) Article 341
C) Article 342
D) Article 355
Answer: A) Article 338
Explanation: Article 338 provides for the establishment of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
100. The power to pardon, reprieve, remit or suspend a sentence is vested in:
A) Parliament
B) Prime Minister
C) President of India
D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: C) President of India
Explanation: The President has the power of clemency under Article 72.
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